Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 21.06.2025 00:29
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If a cat is feminine in German, what article do you give to a male cat?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Why does it matter so much to atheists that God doesn't exist?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.